Nursing Elites

1. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?

• A. ''I may experience seizures if I stop the medication abruptly.''
• B. ''I may experience an increase in my heart rate for a few weeks.''
• C. ''I can expect to feel nervousness the first few weeks.''
• D. ''I can have a heart attack if I stop this medication suddenly.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

2. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Expiratory wheezes
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ascites
• D. Dilated pupils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.

4. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

5. Joseph, 45 years of age, a community resident of Barangay 22-A, suddenly had 2 bouts of soft to almost watery stools after having taken his lunch. While observing his condition further at home and later deciding whether to refer him for medical treatment, you recommended that he boil a decoction for 15 minutes at low fire using 10-15 leaves of which medicinal plant?

• A. Bayabas
• B. Pancit pacitan
• C. Sambong
• D. Lagundi

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Bayabas (guava) leaves. Guava leaves are known for their anti-diarrheal properties, which can help alleviate Joseph's condition. Pancit pacitan, Sambong, and Lagundi are not commonly used for treating diarrhea and do not possess the same anti-diarrheal properties as guava leaves.

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