Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

• A. Let’s move on to a new action that deals with the problem.
• B. I think you need to reserve judgment until after all suggestions are offered.
• C. Very well thought out. Your analytic skills and interest are incredible.
• D. Let’s move to the ‘what if…’ as related to these objections for an exploration of spin-off ideas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

2. The occurrence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) is on the rise and is attributed to the changing lifestyle of Filipinos. The major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). The community health nurse can help address these problems. The major risk factors common to the above-mentioned four major NCDs are:

• A. Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
• B. Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, and poor stress management
• C. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and smoking
• D. Unhealthy diet, alcoholism, and sedentary lifestyle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking.' These are major risk factors associated with cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). Unhealthy diet can lead to obesity and other health issues, physical inactivity contributes to various chronic conditions, and smoking is a well-known risk factor for cancer and respiratory diseases. Choice B is incorrect as hypertension is a condition that can result from these risk factors rather than being a risk factor itself. Poor stress management, although important for overall health, is not a major risk factor for the mentioned NCDs. Choice C is incorrect as although obesity is a risk factor, it is not mentioned in the question stem. Choice D is incorrect as alcoholism is not listed among the major NCDs or the common risk factors provided.

3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

• A. Health education
• B. Regular exercise
• C. Screening tests
• D. Physical therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

4. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

5. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

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