Nursing Elites

1. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Assist the client back to the room
• C. Have the client sit down in the hall
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.

2. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?

• A. Keeping the room brightly lit
• B. Administering sedatives as needed
• C. Encouraging family presence
• D. Restricting fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.

3. At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?

• A. Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic
• B. Obtain a finger stick capillary glucose level
• C. Determine if the client's bladder feels distended
• D. Note the most recent white blood cell count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.

4. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

5. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.

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