HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. In which stage of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a young adult attempting to achieve when deciding to change his work hours to devote more time to his community?
- A. Self-Actualization
- B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
- C. Altruism
- D. Purposefulness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. The young adult is striving for self-actualization, the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Self-actualization is characterized by individuals seeking personal growth, self-fulfillment, and the ability to contribute to society. Choice B, Intimacy vs. Isolation, focuses on relationships and occurs at a different stage. Choice C, Altruism, although related to community contribution, does not specifically address personal growth and fulfillment as in self-actualization. Choice D, Purposefulness, is not a stage in Maslow's hierarchy of needs and is not directly relevant to the scenario described.
2. During a bed bath, the nurse observes that a client's IV site is red and swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Discontinue the IV under physician's guidance
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Notify the physician
- D. Document the appearance of the site and continue the bath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when a nurse observes a red and swollen IV site during a bed bath is to notify the physician. This is crucial because prompt reporting allows for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Discontinuing the IV (Choice A) should only be done under the physician's guidance to avoid any adverse effects and ensure proper care. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation if the cause is an infection or infiltration. Documenting the site's appearance and continuing the bath (Choice D) without immediate action might delay necessary treatment, leading to potential complications.
3. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
4. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
- A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
- B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
- C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
- D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
5. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?
- A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
- B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.