Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to include in the teaching of a client who was recently prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) as an oral medication?

• A. Monitor heart rate before taking the medication
• B. Monitor temperature daily
• C. Avoid unprotected exposure to sunlight
• D. Avoid alcohol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alprazolam (Xanax) can have central nervous system depressant effects, which are exacerbated by alcohol. It is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent severe sedation and respiratory depression. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) is not directly related to alprazolam administration. Monitoring temperature daily (choice B) is not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam. Avoiding unprotected exposure to sunlight (choice C) is not specifically linked to the use of alprazolam.

2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

3. Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Call healthcare provider to request a different analgesic
• B. Determine when morphine can be given again
• C. Implement complementary pain relief methods
• D. Observe dressing to determine the presence of bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.

4. At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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