Nursing Elites

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

3. What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?

• A. Determine if the client uses any over-the-counter preparations for hemorrhoids
• B. Place the client in a standing position, leaning over the exam bed for inspection
• C. Position the client in the left lateral position to inspect the perineal area for fissures or sacs
• D. Ask the client how long she has experienced discomfort related to hemorrhoids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.

4. A client with a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management asks how it works. What information should the nurse reinforce?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain
• B. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

5. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry
• B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
• C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
• D. Turn the infant onto the right side

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.

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