HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
- A. Record usual eating patterns
- B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
- C. Document abdominal girth
- D. Elevate both legs on pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
2. A nurse is caring for a 60-year-old man who is scheduled to have coronary bypass surgery in the morning. He tells the nurse that he is afraid that he will die and he is scared of the surgery. What is the best reply for this nurse to give him?
- A. There is no reason to be scared. My father had this surgery, and now he’s playing tennis with his friends almost every day.
- B. I would be scared too. It’s a natural thing to feel. Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.
- C. You’re scared?
- D. The doctor has performed hundreds of successful bypass surgeries. I have a lot of faith in him.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best reply for the nurse to give the patient is option C: 'You’re scared?' This response reflects empathy and understanding, acknowledging the patient's feelings of fear. By directly addressing the patient's emotions, the nurse encourages further expression of concerns, which is crucial in providing emotional support. Choices A and D may come off as dismissive of the patient's feelings by downplaying his fear or shifting the focus to others' experiences. Choice B, although acknowledging the patient's fear, does not actively engage with the patient's emotions or encourage further discussion.
3. What is the correct order of steps in the nursing process?
- A. Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
- B. Planning, Implementation, Evaluation, Diagnosis, Assessment
- C. Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation
- D. Implementation, Planning, Evaluation, Diagnosis, Assessment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order in the nursing process is Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Assessment involves gathering information about the patient, Diagnosis is identifying the problem, Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, Implementation is carrying out the plan, and Evaluation is assessing the outcomes. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, not following the standard nursing process framework. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
5. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
- A. Contact isolation
- B. Airborne isolation
- C. Droplet isolation
- D. Reverse isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
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