HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:
- A. an XYY male.
- B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
- C. an XXY male.
- D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.
2. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Focusing on controlling body functions
- B. Synchronized breathing is often helpful during hypnosis
- C. Hypnosis can be beneficial if practiced during the prenatal period
- D. Hypnosis is ineffective for controlling pain associated with labor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypnosis can be an effective method of pain control during labor, especially if practiced during the prenatal period. Choice A is not specific to hypnosis and may not be directly related. Choice B is not essential for hypnosis and may not always be required. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis has been shown to be beneficial for managing labor pain when done correctly, making it an inappropriate option to include in the teaching.
3. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
4. A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?
- A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
- B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
- C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
- D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Head and chest circumference measurements are within normal limits for a newborn, especially for those delivered by cesarean section, so no immediate action is required beyond documentation.
5. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Clindamycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
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