HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:
- A. an XYY male.
- B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
- C. an XXY male.
- D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.
2. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.
3. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?
- A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
- B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
- C. Hydramnios
- D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.
4. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients who are breastfeeding after returning to work. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “Thawed breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 24 hours.”
- B. “Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months.”
- C. “Breast milk can be stored at room temperature for up to 4 hours.”
- D. “Thawed breast milk that is unused cannot be refrozen.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Breast milk can be stored in a deep freezer for 12 months.” This instruction is important for mothers returning to work to ensure a long-term storage option for breast milk. Choice A is incorrect because thawed breast milk should be used within 24 hours if stored in the refrigerator. Choice C is incorrect as breast milk can be kept at room temperature for only up to 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as thawed breast milk that is unused should not be refrozen due to safety concerns.
5. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?
- A. Retained placental fragments.
- B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
- C. Uterine atony.
- D. Puerperal infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.
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