Nursing Elites

1. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:

• A. codominance.
• B. preponderance.
• C. ascendance.
• D. concurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.

2. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

3. In the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which of the following bases combines with thymine?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Adenine
• C. Rhodamine
• D. Serine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adenine. In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with thymine through hydrogen bonding, forming one of the complementary base pairs that make up the double helix structure of DNA. Cytosine pairs with guanine, not thymine. Rhodamine and serine are not DNA bases and do not participate in DNA base pairing. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

4. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 20 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
• C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
• D. WBC count 32,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Breast Tenderness
• D. Chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

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