Nursing Elites

1. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

2. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

3. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Barrel chest
• B. Clubbing of the fingers
• C. Cough with sputum production
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.

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