Nursing Elites

1. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

2. What is the rate of delivery in mL/hr if a total volume of 750 mL is infused over a period of 7 hours?

• A. 107 mL/hr.
• B. 107 mL/hr.
• C. 107 mL/hr.
• D. 107 mL/hr.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct rate of delivery is 107 mL/hr. To find the rate of delivery, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 7 hours = 107 mL/hr. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the total volume and time provided.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?

• A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
• B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
• C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
• D. When the patient requests it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.

5. Why should a client with an ileal conduit be instructed to empty the collection device frequently?

• A. Force urine to back up into the kidneys.
• B. Suppress production of urine.
• C. Cause the device to pull away from the skin.
• D. Tear the ileal conduit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full urine collection bag can cause the device to pull away from the skin, leading to potential leakage and skin irritation. Choice A is incorrect because a full urine collection bag does not force urine to back up into the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as a full collection bag does not suppress the production of urine. Choice D is incorrect as a full collection bag is unlikely to tear the ileal conduit.

Similar Questions