Nursing Elites

1. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

2. What action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent postoperative complications in a client who has undergone abdominal surgery?

• A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly.
• B. Assist the client in ambulating as soon as possible.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly is crucial in preventing postoperative complications after abdominal surgery. This action helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and improving air exchange in the lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Assisting the client in ambulating early is important for preventing issues like deep vein thrombosis but may not directly address respiratory concerns postoperatively. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can help with respiratory distress but is not as specific to preventing postoperative respiratory complications as using an incentive spirometer. While encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is generally beneficial for lung expansion, using an incentive spirometer is more effective and targeted in preventing atelectasis after abdominal surgery.

3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

• A. WBC 15,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

4. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.

5. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

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