Nursing Elites

1. Which organization is primarily responsible for global public health?

• A. World Health Organization (WHO)
• B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• C. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
• D. United Nations (UN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: World Health Organization (WHO). The WHO is the primary organization responsible for global public health initiatives, coordinating international health efforts, setting norms and standards, providing technical support, and monitoring health trends. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they play significant roles in health and global affairs, they do not have the primary responsibility for global public health like the WHO does.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

3. What is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan?

• A. Needs and problems gathered and recognized by the nurse herself
• B. Data gathered from the health center
• C. Needs and problems as seen and accepted by the family
• D. Needs as expected by the midwife assigned in the area where the family resides

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a family health care plan, it is crucial to consider the needs and problems as perceived and accepted by the family members themselves. This ensures that the plan aligns with the family's beliefs, values, and preferences, leading to better acceptance and adherence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the active involvement and acceptance of the family in recognizing their needs and problems are essential for effective health care planning.

4. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

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