Nursing Elites

1. What is the ability to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions known as?

• A. Health literacy
• B. Health equity
• C. Health disparity
• D. Health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Health literacy refers to the ability to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services necessary to make informed health decisions. It empowers individuals to navigate the healthcare system, understand medical instructions, and advocate for their own health needs. - Choice B, Health equity, is the concept of everyone having a fair opportunity to attain their full health potential and not being disadvantaged due to their social or economic status. - Choice C, Health disparity, refers to differences in health outcomes or access to healthcare between different populations, often influenced by social, economic, or environmental factors. - Choice D, Health promotion, involves efforts to enhance and protect the health of individuals and communities through education, behavior change, and public health initiatives.

2. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?

• A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
• B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
• C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
• D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.

3. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

4. The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:

• A. Eat a balanced diet for your age.
• B. Increase your intake of protein and Vitamin A.
• C. Decrease fatty foods from your diet.
• D. Do not use caffeine in any form, including chocolate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

Similar Questions