HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. In the preparation of your health education plan, what is the first thing to do?
- A. Assess community needs for health education
- B. Identify the subjects for health teaching
- C. Specify your goals and objectives
- D. Identify who will provide support and the type of support to be provided
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess community needs for health education. This is the initial step in developing a health education plan as it helps in understanding the specific requirements of the community. Identifying subjects for teaching (choice B) comes after assessing needs. Specifying goals and objectives (choice C) is crucial but typically follows the assessment of community needs. Identifying support providers and types (choice D) is important but is not the first step in preparing a health education plan.
2. An order is written for an isotonic enema for a 2-year-old child. What is the maximum amount of fluid the nurse should administer without a specific order from the healthcare provider?
- A. 100 to 150 mL
- B. 155 to 250 mL
- C. 255 to 360 mL
- D. 365 to 500 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, the maximum recommended amount of fluid for an isotonic enema is between 155 to 250 mL. This range is considered safe to prevent overdistension and potential harm to the child's rectum. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe range for a 2-year-old child and can lead to complications such as bowel perforation or electrolyte imbalances.
3. A client who will be going to surgery states no known allergies to any medications. What is the most important nursing action for the nurse to implement next?
- A. Assess client’s knowledge of an allergic response
- B. Record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist
- C. Flag 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart
- D. Assess client’s allergies to non-drug substances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action to take in this situation is to record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist. This ensures that all healthcare staff involved in the surgery are aware of the client's stated lack of drug allergies, helping to prevent any potential adverse reactions. Assessing the client's knowledge of an allergic response (Choice A) may be valuable but is not the most crucial action at this point. Flagging 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart (Choice C) is less practical and visible compared to documenting it on the preoperative checklist. Assessing the client’s allergies to non-drug substances (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario where the focus is on medications due to the upcoming surgery.
4. After completing an oral examination of a healthy 2-year-old child, the parent asks when the child should first be taken to the dentist. When is the most appropriate time in the child’s life for the nurse to suggest?
- A. Before starting school
- B. Within the next few months
- C. When the first deciduous teeth are lost
- D. At the next dental visit of a family member
Correct answer: B
Rationale: It is recommended that a child should visit the dentist within the next few months after turning two years old. This allows for early dental check-ups to monitor oral health, detect any issues early on, and establish a good oral hygiene routine. Choice A ('Before starting school') is not as specific and may delay the child's first dental visit. Choice C ('When the first deciduous teeth are lost') is too late for the first dental visit, as preventive care should start earlier. Choice D ('At the next dental visit of a family member') is not ideal as the child's dental needs should be addressed independently of family members' visits.
5. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?
- A. Retained placental fragments.
- B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
- C. Uterine atony.
- D. Puerperal infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.