which of the following times is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.

2. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.

3. The mother of a 2 year-old hospitalized child asks the nurse's advice about the child's screaming every time the mother gets ready to leave the hospital room. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should reassure the mother that the child's behavior is normal for their age and situation.

4. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.

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