HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
2. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
3. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.
4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Pain in the affected leg
- B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Swelling in the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Menses overdue
- C. Soft tender abdomen
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.
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