Nursing Elites

1. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?

• A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
• B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
• C. Following an angry outburst with family
• D. When the client is removed from the security room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.

2. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
• C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
• D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

3. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?

• A. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
• B. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• C. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use.
• D. Maintaining sterile technique when handling the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 200 mg
• B. 100 mg
• C. 160 mg
• D. 180 mg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg × 100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.

Similar Questions