Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?

• A. Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clock care.
• B. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken.
• C. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen.
• D. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.

2. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

3. A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?

• A. Offer to assist the client who needs the bedpan.
• B. Administer the injection the other nurse prepared.
• C. Prepare another syringe and administer the injection.
• D. Tell the client who needs the bedpan to wait while the nurse gives someone else medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.

4. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?

• A. Risk for aspiration
• B. Impaired physical mobility
• C. Disturbed sensory perception
• D. Interrupted family processes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.

5. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

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