Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

2. A home health nurse is discussing the dangers of carbon monoxide poisoning with a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Carbon monoxide does not have a distinct odor.
• B. Water heaters should be inspected every 5 years.
• C. The lungs are not damaged from carbon monoxide inhalation.
• D. Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.' Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas, so it does not have a distinct odor (Choice A). While regular inspection of appliances like water heaters is important for safety, it is not directly related to carbon monoxide poisoning (Choice B). Carbon monoxide primarily affects the cardiovascular system by binding with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen, rather than causing direct lung damage (Choice C). Understanding how carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin is crucial in recognizing the mechanism of poisoning and its potential consequences.

3. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Determine if the expected outcomes were realistic
• B. Obtain current client data to compare with expected outcomes
• C. Modify the nursing interventions to achieve the client's goals
• D. Review related professional standards of care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes in the plan of care, the nurse should obtain current client data to compare with these outcomes. This step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because determining the realism of expected outcomes comes after assessing current client data. Choice C is incorrect as modifying nursing interventions should be based on the data comparison rather than done immediately after reviewing expected outcomes. Choice D is also incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step in evaluating care effectiveness.

4. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

5. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

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