HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?
- A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
- D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.
2. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.
- A. monozygous
- B. dizygous
- C. homozygous
- D. hemizygous
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.
3. How many pairs of autosomes does a human zygote contain?
- A. 46
- B. 44
- C. 23
- D. 22
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A human zygote contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 22. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of autosomes in a human zygote. Option A (46) represents the total number of chromosomes in a human zygote, not the number of autosomes. Option B (44) is incorrect as it does not account for the correct number of autosomes. Option C (23) is inaccurate since it represents the total number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the number of autosomes in a zygote.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?
- A. Molding
- B. Vernix Caseosa
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.
5. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access