Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

2. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?

• A. At 18-20 weeks
• B. During the first month
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.

3. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

• A. Genital Warts
• B. Syphilis
• C. Herpes Simplex Virus
• D. German Measles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?

• A. Bulging Fontanels
• B. Nasal Flaring
• C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
• D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.

5. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
• B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
• C. Pulse 58/min
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.

Similar Questions