Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

• A. maternal mortality
• B. neonatal death rate
• C. fetal death rate
• D. infant mortality rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

2. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?

• A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
• B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
• C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
• D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct answer: At the age of 10, children are in the stage of concrete operational thought, where they can think logically and organize facts. Choice A is incorrect as simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as while children at this age are developing perspective-taking skills, their interpretations are not solely limited to their own perspective. Choice D is incorrect as while previous experiences influence their thinking, the ability to think logically and organize facts is more prominent in this stage of cognitive development.

3. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer history of smoking ask the occupational nurse for assistance with smoking cessation. The RN develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of OTC products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. Encourage the employees to disclose if they have joined another smoking cessation group.
• B. Ask the employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start back up again.
• C. Survey the employees about their smoking habits.
• D. Observe if the employees are smoking in the designated smoking areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surveying the employees about their smoking habits provides measurable data on program effectiveness. By collecting data directly from the employees through surveys, the occupational nurse can track changes in smoking habits, frequency, and quantity of cigarettes smoked. This direct feedback allows for a more accurate assessment of the program's impact on smoking cessation. Choices A and B rely on self-disclosure and may not provide reliable or objective data. Choice D does not directly measure changes in smoking habits but rather observes behavior in designated areas, which may not reflect overall smoking cessation progress.

4. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

• A. Infant will experience minimal pain
• B. Muscle spasms will be relieved
• C. Mobility will be managed as tolerated
• D. Tissue perfusion will be maintained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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