Nursing Elites

1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. Contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. Maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. Documents the nursing process in care management
• D. Develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining chairmanship of the hospital nursing council demonstrates leadership and professionalism. This role involves overseeing and leading nursing activities at the hospital, showcasing a high level of responsibility and professionalism. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to demonstrating professionalism. Contributing money to a professional society, documenting the nursing process, or developing policy initiatives, while valuable activities, do not directly reflect the same level of leadership and professionalism as maintaining chairmanship.

2. A 23-year-old single client is in the 33rd week of her first pregnancy. She tells the nurse that she has everything ready for the baby and has made plans for the first weeks together at home. Which normal emotional reaction does the nurse recognize?

• A. Acceptance of the pregnancy
• B. Focus on fetal development
• C. Anticipation of the birth
• D. Ambivalence about pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Anticipation of the birth.' In the third trimester, it is common for expectant mothers to feel excited and prepared for the upcoming birth of their baby. This includes making plans for the baby's arrival and the early days at home. Choice A, 'Acceptance of the pregnancy,' may occur earlier in the pregnancy and does not specifically relate to the third trimester. Choice B, 'Focus on fetal development,' is more common in the earlier stages of pregnancy when the mother may be more concerned with the baby's growth and milestones. Choice D, 'Ambivalence about pregnancy,' suggests conflicting feelings which are less likely in this scenario where the client expresses readiness and plans for the baby's arrival.

3. Which organization is primarily responsible for global public health?

• A. World Health Organization (WHO)
• B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• C. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
• D. United Nations (UN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: World Health Organization (WHO). The WHO is the primary organization responsible for global public health initiatives, coordinating international health efforts, setting norms and standards, providing technical support, and monitoring health trends. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they play significant roles in health and global affairs, they do not have the primary responsibility for global public health like the WHO does.

4. In order to be effective as an occupational health nurse, you should be equipped with knowledge and skills in which of the following:

• A. public health science
• B. research process
• C. interviewing and counseling
• D. oral and written communication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To be effective as an occupational health nurse, having knowledge and skills in public health science, the research process, interviewing and counseling, and oral and written communication are all important. However, communication skills, both oral and written, are crucial for conveying information, educating employees, documenting findings, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals. While public health science, research process, interviewing, and counseling are essential, oral and written communication is fundamental for effective communication and coordination in the workplace, making it the most critical skill for an occupational health nurse.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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