Nursing Elites

1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. Contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. Maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. Documents the nursing process in care management
• D. Develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining chairmanship of the hospital nursing council demonstrates leadership and professionalism. This role involves overseeing and leading nursing activities at the hospital, showcasing a high level of responsibility and professionalism. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to demonstrating professionalism. Contributing money to a professional society, documenting the nursing process, or developing policy initiatives, while valuable activities, do not directly reflect the same level of leadership and professionalism as maintaining chairmanship.

2. The nurse manager has a nurse employee who is suspected of having a problem with chemical dependency. Which intervention would be the best approach by the nurse manager?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspicions in a private meeting
• B. Schedule a staff conference, without the nurse present
• C. Consult the human resources department about the issue and needed actions
• D. Counsel the employee to resign to avoid investigation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consulting with human resources is the best approach in this situation. It ensures that the issue is handled according to the organization's policies and that the nurse receives the appropriate support and intervention needed for chemical dependency. Confronting the nurse directly may lead to defensiveness and hinder a constructive resolution. Scheduling a staff conference without the nurse present can create unnecessary speculation and violate the employee's privacy. Counseling the employee to resign is not appropriate and does not address the underlying problem of chemical dependency.

3. The community health nurse has been following the care for an adolescent with a history of morbid obesity, asthma, hypertension, and is 22 weeks into a pregnancy. Which of these lab reports sent to the clinic needs to be called to the teen's healthcare provider within the next hour?

• A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL and calcium 6 mg/dL
• B. Magnesium 0.8 mEq/L and creatinine 3 mg/dL
• C. Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL and glucose 225 mg/dL
• D. Hematocrit 33% and platelets 200,000

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The low magnesium level and elevated creatinine suggest possible renal dysfunction, which is concerning, especially in a pregnant client with multiple risk factors such as morbid obesity, asthma, and hypertension. Immediate attention is needed to address the potential renal issues. The other choices do not indicate such urgent conditions. Hemoglobin and calcium levels in choice A are within acceptable ranges. Choice C shows elevated blood urea nitrogen and glucose levels, which may need monitoring but not immediate attention. Choice D's hematocrit and platelet levels are also within normal ranges and do not indicate an urgent issue.

4. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

5. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

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