HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?
- A. Contributes money to a professional society or organization
- B. Maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
- C. Documents the nursing process in care management
- D. Develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining chairmanship of the hospital nursing council demonstrates leadership and professionalism. This role involves overseeing and leading nursing activities at the hospital, showcasing a high level of responsibility and professionalism. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to demonstrating professionalism. Contributing money to a professional society, documenting the nursing process, or developing policy initiatives, while valuable activities, do not directly reflect the same level of leadership and professionalism as maintaining chairmanship.
2. The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has
- A. Achieved developmental milestones at an erratic rate
- B. Delay in musculoskeletal development
- C. Displayed difficulty with speech development
- D. Delay in achievement of most developmental milestones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.
3. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
- A. Administration of cough suppressants
- B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
- C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.
4. Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?
- A. Prefers to feed themselves
- B. Eats very small nutritious meals a day rather than 3 large meals
- C. Can speak in longer sentences
- D. Can use a toothbrush properly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.
5. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:
- A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
- B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
- C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.
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