Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?

• A. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air
• B. Checking the pH of the aspirate
• C. Observing the patient’s response during feeding
• D. Measuring the external length of the tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient’s response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.

2. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

3. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

• A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
• B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
• C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
• D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

4. Which statement by a mature adult client with advanced prostate cancer best indicates that he has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis?

• A. I don't have any use for those who say the disease is going to win
• B. I've found the support I need from my faith and family
• C. I think I've had this disease for a long time, but the doctor did not find it
• D. I understand that this is a disease that occurs mostly in older men

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because finding support in faith and family is a common way for individuals to cope with serious illnesses and come to terms with their prognosis. This statement indicates that the client has found a source of strength and comfort to deal with their situation. Choice A reflects defiance rather than acceptance. Choice C suggests denial or disbelief in the diagnosis. Choice D shows factual knowledge about the disease but does not necessarily indicate acceptance of the prognosis.

5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

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