HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?
- A. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air
- B. Checking the pH of the aspirate
- C. Observing the patient’s response during feeding
- D. Measuring the external length of the tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient’s response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.
2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.
3. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
- A. Due date
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Gravida and parity
- D. Fundal height
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
4. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
5. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply
- A. Orange juice, oranges, bananas
- B. All are applicable
- C. Collard greens, kale, turnips
- D. Soybeans, lima beans, spinach
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.
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