which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.

2. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

3. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

4. The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.

5. Which of the following areas does the Patient’s Bill of Rights cover?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Patient’s Bill of Rights encompasses various areas to protect patients' rights. These include ensuring information disclosure, allowing patients to choose their healthcare providers, and giving them options to select plans that suit their needs. Therefore, all the choices - information disclosure, choice of providers, and choice of plans - are covered under the Patient’s Bill of Rights. The option 'Best payment options' is not relevant to the areas typically addressed by the Patient’s Bill of Rights.

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