Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?

• A. Apply sterile gloves to obtain a finger stick blood sample
• B. Wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care
• C. Replace the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection
• D. Wear a paper gown to prevent transmission of droplet pathogens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.

2. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
• B. To prevent hip dislocation.
• C. To improve circulation in the legs.
• D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.

3. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?

• A. Myasthenia gravis
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
• D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.

4. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry
• B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
• C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
• D. Turn the infant onto the right side

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.

5. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
• B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
• C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
• D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

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