Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?

• A. Apply sterile gloves to obtain a finger stick blood sample
• B. Wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care
• C. Replace the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection
• D. Wear a paper gown to prevent transmission of droplet pathogens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.

2. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.

3. A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

• A. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
• B. Avoid crowded places and people who are sick.
• C. Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.
• D. Keep the surgical site clean and dry.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.

4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

5. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

• A. Administer a prescribed laxative.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

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