HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?
- A. Leukemia
- B. Histoplasmosis
- C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.
2. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?
- A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
- B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
- C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
- D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?
- A. Shortened prothrombin time
- B. Increased fibrinogen level
- C. Positive fibrin split products
- D. Increased platelets
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Sodium level
- B. Potassium level
- C. Calcium level
- D. Chloride level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.