Nursing Elites

1. A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the risks of refusing medications
• B. Complete an incident report
• C. Answer the client's question concerning the procedure
• D. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.

2. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?

• A. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle
• B. Pain and inflammation in the bones
• C. Deformity of the foot
• D. Infection in the joint leading to arthritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.

5. A nurse manager is leading a discussion about ethical dilemmas. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager include as an example of an ethical dilemma?

• A. A visitor experiences a minor burn after spilling coffee
• B. A client receives an operation on the wrong side of her body
• C. A parent wants her 14-year-old adolescent to receive radiation treatment against his will
• D. A nurse witnesses another nurse administer an incorrect medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ethical dilemma involves a situation where moral principles conflict, such as in the case of a parent wanting their adolescent to receive treatment against their will. In option A, a minor burn from spilled coffee does not present a conflict of moral principles. Option B describes a medical error, not necessarily a conflict of moral principles. Option D involves an issue of professional practice and patient safety but does not inherently pose a conflict of moral principles.

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