which of the following best describes the concept of health disparity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'health disparity'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Differences in health outcomes and their determinants between different segments of the population.' Health disparity refers to variations in health status or health care utilization between different groups. Choice B is incorrect because providing equal healthcare services to all individuals is related to health equity, not health disparity. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to universal access to healthcare, which is different from health disparity. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the concept of high-quality healthcare for everyone, not health disparity.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

3. To be an effective educator, you should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to select the best strategy for health action for people to implement because it empowers the community to take ownership of their health. Listening to people's problems (Choice A) is important, but the effectiveness lies in empowering them to implement solutions. Directing people's efforts (Choice C) can be directive and may not foster community ownership. Just telling clients what to do (Choice D) does not promote active participation and empowerment.

4. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

5. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

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