HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
- B. Hematocrit of 55%
- C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
- D. Positive Coombs test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.
2. The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?
- A. Clear the area of any hazards
- B. Place the child on the side
- C. Restrain the child
- D. Give the prescribed anticonvulsant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.
3. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.
4. In order to determine what specific health teaching should be appropriate for the people of this municipality, which of the following is the best method to use?
- A. interviewing midwives
- B. reviewing records and reports
- C. studying knowledge, attitudes, and practices of the people
- D. reviewing health statistics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Studying knowledge, attitudes, and practices of the people is the best method to determine appropriate health teaching for a community. This approach provides valuable insights into the specific needs, beliefs, and behaviors of the population, allowing for tailored and effective health education interventions. Interviewing midwives may offer some insights, but focusing on the broader community is more comprehensive. Reviewing records and reports can provide historical data but may not capture current community needs as effectively as studying current knowledge, attitudes, and practices. Reviewing health statistics is important but may not provide the detailed understanding of community perceptions and behaviors that directly impact health education planning.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in diabetes. The nurse should monitor the client for hypoglycemia, which is a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as shakiness, dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, not typically associated with insulin glargine. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, which is not a common side effect of insulin glargine. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not related to the use of insulin glargine.
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