while assessing an rh positive newborn whose mother is rh negative the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia which of the following should
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

2. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.

3. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

4. The RN is making a home visit to a female client with end-stage heart disease. She has a living will and states she will never go back to the hospital. During the visit, the RN notes that the client is pale and SOB while speaking. The RN discovers 3+ edema in both ankles and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Which intervention should the RN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a peripheral O2 saturation reading is the priority intervention in this scenario. It helps assess the client's oxygenation status quickly, which is crucial in a client with signs of respiratory distress, such as shortness of breath and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Ordering a chest X-ray (Choice A) may be necessary later but does not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Obtaining an order for a complete blood count (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Instructing the patient to stay in bed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoxia and respiratory compromise.

5. What is the main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is to eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases. While providing healthcare to all individuals and reducing child mortality are important goals, the primary focus of EPI is specifically on preventing diseases through immunization. Promoting healthy lifestyles, although beneficial, is not the primary aim of the EPI.

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