Nursing Elites

1. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

2. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

3. To be an effective educator, you should:

• A. listen to people's problems and decide on the approach to meet their needs
• B. select the best strategy for health action for people to implement
• C. direct people's efforts to implement community-based projects
• D. simply tell your clients what to do for their problems/needs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to select the best strategy for health action for people to implement because it empowers the community to take ownership of their health. Listening to people's problems (Choice A) is important, but the effectiveness lies in empowering them to implement solutions. Directing people's efforts (Choice C) can be directive and may not foster community ownership. Just telling clients what to do (Choice D) does not promote active participation and empowerment.

4. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

• A. Health education
• B. Regular exercise
• C. Screening tests
• D. Physical therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased anteroposterior diameter
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion
• C. Increased breath sounds
• D. Prolonged expiratory phase

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolonged expiratory phase. In COPD, there is airflow obstruction leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This results in a prolonged expiratory phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased anteroposterior diameter is associated with conditions like barrel chest in emphysema, not COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typical in conditions like emphysema, not necessarily in COPD. Increased breath sounds are not a typical finding in COPD; instead, diminished breath sounds may be present due to air trapping.

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