while assessing an rh positive newborn whose mother is rh negative the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia which of the following should
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

2. Which family planning method is not advisable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Natural family planning relies on tracking menstrual cycles to determine fertile days for avoiding or achieving pregnancy. It may not be suitable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods as it can be challenging to predict fertile days accurately. Oral contraceptives (A), diaphragms (B), and vaginal contraceptives (D) do not rely on regular menstrual cycles for their effectiveness, making them more suitable options for women with irregular periods.

3. What does the nurse perform to determine the family nursing problems/needs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: assessment. Assessment is the initial step in identifying family nursing problems/needs. During assessment, the nurse collects data to understand the family's health status, strengths, weaknesses, and potential areas for intervention. This process helps in developing an accurate picture of the family's situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because goal setting, family health care plan formulation, and evaluation come after the assessment phase. Goal setting occurs once the issues are identified, the family health care plan is developed based on assessment findings, and evaluation is the final step to assess the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.

4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

5. The nurse is reviewing a depressed client's history from an earlier admission. Documentation of anhedonia is noted. The nurse understands that this finding refers to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures. Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure in normally pleasurable activities. Choice A, reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep, is more indicative of insomnia rather than anhedonia. Choice B, expression of persistent suicidal thoughts, is related to suicidal ideation and not anhedonia. Choice D, reduced senses of taste and smell, is more associated with disturbances in the sense of taste and smell, not anhedonia.

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