Nursing Elites

1. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

2. A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?

• A. Arrange for a change in client care assignments
• B. Explain that this behavior is expected
• C. Discuss the appropriate use of 'time-out'
• D. Explain that the child is in need of extra attention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain that this behavior is expected. At 16 months of age, children commonly experience separation anxiety, especially in unfamiliar environments like hospitals. It is important for the nurse to reassure the child and the parent that such behavior is normal. Option A is incorrect as there is no need to change client care assignments based on the child's behavior. Option C is not appropriate as discussing the use of 'time-out' is more relevant in behavior management for older children. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of the child's behavior related to separation anxiety.

3. As an important tool for planning a community health survey was conducted, the first tangible outcome of collaboration and teamwork with the Local Health Department and its Rural Health Units (RHUs) was seen. This later led to case-finding activities via collection and examination of stools from children for suspected parasitism. Which of the following community nursing diagnoses will guide the Parish Health Team for concrete action?

• A. Parasitism as a foreseeable crisis
• B. Malnutrition as a health deficit
• C. Parasitism as a health deficit
• D. Parasitism as a health threat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Parasitism as a health threat.' This choice accurately describes the ongoing issue of parasitic infections in the community, highlighting the seriousness and urgency of the problem. Choice A ('Parasitism as a foreseeable crisis') is incorrect as it does not emphasize the immediate danger posed by parasitic infections. Choice B ('Malnutrition as a health deficit') is not the most relevant diagnosis considering the context provided. Choice C ('Parasitism as a health deficit') is also incorrect as it fails to capture the level of risk and urgency associated with parasitic infections in this scenario.

4. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

5. The nurse is teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms. An appropriate goal for this client would be

• A. Reduce fear and protect self-esteem
• B. Minimize anxiety and delay apprehension
• C. Avoid conflict and leave unpleasant situations
• D. Increase independence and communicate more effectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Reduce fear and protect self-esteem.' When teaching a client about the healthy use of ego defense mechanisms, the goal is to help the individual manage emotions effectively without denying reality. Using defense mechanisms in a healthy way aims to reduce fear and protect self-esteem while still addressing underlying issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not focus on the core principles of using defense mechanisms in a healthy manner. Minimizing anxiety and delaying apprehension, avoiding conflict and leaving unpleasant situations, and increasing independence and communicating more effectively do not directly align with the goal of utilizing ego defense mechanisms in a constructive way.

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