Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

• A. Health education
• B. Regular exercise
• C. Screening tests
• D. Physical therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

2. Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?

• A. Sports and games with rules
• B. Finger paints and water play
• C. "Dress-up" clothes and props
• D. Chess and television programs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sports and games with rules are appropriate for the cognitive development stage of 7-year-olds.

3. In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?

• A. Appropriate nutritional level
• B. Sense of personal security
• C. Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations
• D. Maladaptations to one's environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. While performing an initial assessment on a newborn following a breech delivery, the nurse suspects hip dislocation. Which of the following is most suggestive of the abnormality?

• A. Flexion of lower extremities
• B. Negative Ortolani response
• C. Lengthened leg of affected side
• D. Irregular hip symmetry

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Irregular hip symmetry, such as asymmetry in the gluteal folds, is a common sign of hip dislocation in newborns. This finding indicates a potential abnormality in hip development and requires further evaluation and possible treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Flexion of lower extremities is a normal newborn reflex, the Ortolani response is used to detect hip dysplasia rather than hip dislocation, and a lengthened leg of the affected side is not typically associated with hip dislocation in newborns.

5. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

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