NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.
2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
3. Which approach would the healthcare provider use when managing the care of a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Creating an anxiety-free environment for the client
- B. Assisting the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms
- C. Avoiding triggers that produce anxiety in the client
- D. Providing reinforcement that the client's anxiety issues can be eliminated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider would assist the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms. GAD is characterized by the maladaptive use of worrying as a coping mechanism. The ultimate goal is for the healthcare provider to help the client replace the ineffective worrying with effective, healthy coping mechanisms. Creating an anxiety-free environment is not feasible or recommended; the goal is to help the client learn to deal with anxiety in a healthy manner. While identifying triggers is important, avoiding all triggers that produce anxiety is often impractical. Providing reinforcement that anxiety issues can be eliminated is not appropriate as anxiety is a normal human experience that needs to be managed effectively rather than eliminated completely.
4. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
- C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.
5. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.
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