NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.
2. Which clinical findings indicate positive signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?
- A. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness
- B. Flat affect, decreased spontaneity, asocial behavior
- C. Hypomania, labile mood swings, episodes of euphoria
- D. Bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, loose associations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations, and loose associations. These are positive symptoms of schizophrenia, reflecting a distortion or excess of normal function. Withdrawal, poverty of speech, inattentiveness, flat affect, decreased spontaneity, and asocial behavior are negative symptoms linked to schizophrenia, indicating a diminution or absence of normal function. Hypomania, labile mood swings, and episodes of euphoria are more characteristic of bipolar disorder, rather than schizophrenia.
3. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
4. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
- B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
- C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
- D. Do you smoke?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.
5. After undergoing dilation and curettage following an early miscarriage, a client is crying. Which response would the nurse give?
- A. ''This must be a very difficult experience for you to deal with.''
- B. 'You'll have other children to take the place of the child you lost.''
- C. 'Of course you're sad now, but at least you know you can get pregnant.''
- D. 'I know how you feel, but when a woman miscarries, it's usually for the best.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's grief without judgment and provides validation. Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests replacing the lost child with other children, which is insensitive and dismissive of the client's current loss. Choice C minimizes the client's feelings by focusing on the ability to get pregnant rather than addressing the emotional impact of the miscarriage. Choice D is dismissive and patronizing, suggesting that the miscarriage was for the best, which can be hurtful and diminish the client's grief.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access