Nursing Elites

1. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

• A. ricin
• B. botulism toxin
• C. sulfur mustard
• D. yersinia pestis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. Botulism toxin is associated with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, which are consistent with the client's presentation. Ricin (Choice A) typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms. Sulfur mustard (Choice C) is a blistering agent causing skin, eye, and respiratory issues. Yersinia pestis (Choice D) is associated with the bubonic plague, presenting with fever, malaise, and buboes.

2. Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is correct?

• A. Breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth can stimulate breastmilk production
• B. Breastmilk should be started 24 hours after delivery
• C. Breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid introduction of infection
• D. Breastfeeding should be done as often as the baby wants

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement about breastfeeding is that breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid the introduction of infection. This practice is recommended by health experts for optimal infant health. Choice A is incorrect because breastfeeding should ideally start within the first hour after birth to stimulate breastmilk production. Choice B is incorrect because breastmilk should be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, not after 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect because while feeding on demand is generally encouraged, it should also follow a schedule to ensure adequate nutrition and growth for the baby.

3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

4. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

• A. maternal mortality
• B. neonatal death rate
• C. fetal death rate
• D. infant mortality rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

5. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

• A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
• C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
• D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

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