Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. To promote wound healing
• C. To reduce postoperative pain
• D. To maintain body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

2. The PN is caring for an older client who was informed about the diagnosis of terminal cancer two days ago. Which intervention would be most helpful for the client's spouse at this time?

• A. Consultation with the case manager and hospital chaplain
• B. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain
• C. Participating in the client's care within his/her capabilities and desires
• D. Information about palliative and hospice care services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing information about palliative and hospice care services can help the spouse understand the options for managing the client's symptoms and improving the quality of life. This also provides support and guidance during a difficult time. Consulting with the case manager and hospital chaplain may be beneficial for emotional support but may not address the practical aspects of care. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain may not foster open communication and support. While participating in the client's care is important, providing information about palliative and hospice care services is the most helpful intervention in this scenario.

3. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?

• A. 10
• B. 8
• C. 7
• D. 9

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.

4. When a small fire breaks out in the kitchen of a long-term care facility, which task is most important for the nurse to perform instead of assigning to a UAP?

• A. Close the doors to all residents' rooms
• B. Offer comfort and reassurance to each resident
• C. Identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident
• D. Provide blankets to each resident for use during evacuation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a fire emergency in a long-term care facility, the most critical task for the nurse is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task requires quick decision-making and critical thinking, which are essential in ensuring the safety and well-being of the residents. Closing the doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but should not be the nurse's top priority. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, the immediate focus should be on ensuring safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is also important but comes after ensuring safe transportation and evacuation plans are in place.

5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

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