HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. To promote wound healing
- C. To reduce postoperative pain
- D. To maintain body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
2. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Assist the client back to the room
- C. Have the client sit down in the hall
- D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.
3. The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in a Fowler's position
- B. Praise the UAP for doing the oral hygiene but encourage family participation
- C. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely
- D. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.
4. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?
- A. 10
- B. 8
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.
5. What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
- A. Graves' disease
- B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- C. Thyroid nodules
- D. Pituitary adenoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland due to autoantibodies stimulating the thyroid. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is actually a cause of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Thyroid nodules and pituitary adenoma are not common causes of hyperthyroidism.
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