what is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices scds to a patients legs postoperatively
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

2. The PN is caring for a client who had an acute brain attack with resulting expressive aphasia and urinary incontinence. To ensure care for the client, which task should the PN delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to the bedside commode is an appropriate task for the UAP as it involves basic patient care and mobility assistance, which are within the UAP's scope of practice. Options A and B involve communication techniques and documentation, which are more appropriate for licensed nursing staff. Option D involves establishing a bladder training schedule, which requires assessment and planning skills beyond the UAP's role.

3. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

5. A nurse is completing a focused assessment of an older adult's skin. The nurse notes a crusted 0.7 cm lesion on the client's forehead. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crusted lesion, especially in an older adult, could be indicative of skin cancer or another serious condition. Therefore, reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and appropriate management. Placing an occlusive dressing (Choice B) could prevent proper assessment and treatment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) may not be suitable for a suspicious skin lesion as it could worsen the condition. Explaining it as a normal skin change (Choice D) without proper evaluation can delay necessary interventions and potentially harm the patient.

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