Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. To promote wound healing
• C. To reduce postoperative pain
• D. To maintain body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

2. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?

• A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
• B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
• C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
• D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.

3. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the PN implement?

• A. Massage the calf and foot
• B. Elevate the leg above the heart
• C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
• D. Extend the leg and flex the foot

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During labor, muscle cramps are common due to prolonged muscle tension. The correct intervention to alleviate a cramp in the leg is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps relieve the muscle spasm by stretching and contracting the muscles. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective in relieving the cramp as extending and flexing the leg. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not necessary and may not directly address the cramp. Checking the pedal pulse (Choice C) is important for assessing circulation, but it does not directly address the muscle cramp.

4. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

5. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

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