HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. To promote wound healing
- C. To reduce postoperative pain
- D. To maintain body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
2. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:
- A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
- B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
- C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
- D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.
3. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
- B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
- C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
- D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.
4. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
5. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client's bladder for distension.
- B. The IV catheter insertion site.
- C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
- D. The client's vital signs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.
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