HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?
- A. Obtain emergency help
- B. Feel for a carotid pulse
- C. Bring a glucometer to the room
- D. Check the blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.
2. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client's bladder for distension.
- B. The IV catheter insertion site.
- C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
- D. The client's vital signs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.
3. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
- B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
- C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
- D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.
4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
5. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
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