when caring for a patient with a fresh tracheostomy what is the nurses first priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. When caring for a patient with a fresh tracheostomy, what is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring the tracheostomy ties are secure. This is the nurse's first priority because it is critical to prevent accidental decannulation, which could compromise the patient’s airway. Providing humidified oxygen, suctioning the tracheostomy tube, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care but ensuring the tracheostomy ties' security takes precedence to maintain the patient's airway.

2. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.

3. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.

4. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

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