Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?

• A. Prothrombin time
• B. Bleeding time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.

2. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

3. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Severe headache
• D. Flushed skin below the level of injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Urine output
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

5. A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?

• A. Mild soap and water
• B. A cotton ball
• C. Mineral oil
• D. Alcohol swabs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.

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