HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
- A. Prothrombin time
- B. Bleeding time
- C. Platelet count
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?
- A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
- B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
- C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
- D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.
3. Fluids are restricted to 1500 ml/day for a male client with AKI. He is frustrated and complaining of constant thirst, and the nurse discovers that the family is providing the client with additional fluids. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove all sources of liquids from the client's room
- B. Allow family to give the client a measured amount of ice chips
- C. Restrict family visiting until the client's condition is stable
- D. Provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth. This intervention helps alleviate the client's thirst without increasing fluid intake, which is essential in managing AKI. Removing all sources of liquids from the client's room (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of thirst and could lead to increased frustration. Allowing the family to give the client ice chips (Choice B) would add to the client's fluid intake, contradicting the restriction. Restricting family visiting (Choice C) is not necessary and does not directly address the client's thirst.
4. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
- B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
- C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
- D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.
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