HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
- A. Prothrombin time
- B. Bleeding time
- C. Platelet count
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.
2. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?
- A. Capillary refill takes > 3 seconds.
- B. Episodes of vertigo and loss of balance.
- C. Average daily output of 1200 ml.
- D. Pulse rate of 110 beats/minute and dyspnea upon exertion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.
3. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?
- A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
- B. Long-term chemotherapy
- C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
- D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.
4. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
- A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
- B. Sleeps on the left side.
- C. Cries vigorously.
- D. Eats.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.
5. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
- A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
- B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
- C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
- D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access