Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?

• A. Prothrombin time
• B. Bleeding time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.

2. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?

• A. Move to the client's other side.
• B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
• C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
• D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.

3. An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Seek routine nail care with a podiatrist.
• B. Encourage monthly pedicures at a nail salon.
• C. Soak feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails.
• D. Ask a family member to cut toenails.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.

4. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

5. A client who had surgery yesterday is becoming increasingly anxious. The client’s respiratory rate has increased to 38 breaths/minute. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction with 500 ml of yellow-green drainage over the last four hours. The client's arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate a decreased CO2 and an increased serum pH. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Electrolytes.
• B. Creatinine.
• C. Blood urea nitrogen.
• D. Glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Electrolytes. In this scenario, the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric secretions through the nasogastric tube. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. Changes in these electrolyte levels can provide valuable information about the client's fluid status and acid-base balance. Creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in different situations but are not the priority in this case of potential metabolic alkalosis.

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