Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

2. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?

• A. What time he took his medication?
• B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
• C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
• D. How many hours he slept last night?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.

3. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

4. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Anemia
• C. Bone pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.

5. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.

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