HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
2. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
- A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
- B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
- C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
- D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.
3. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
- B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.
4. The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
- A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
- B. Sleeps on the left side.
- C. Cries vigorously.
- D. Eats.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.
5. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?
- A. Move to the client's other side.
- B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
- C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
- D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.
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