Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

3. A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 16 ml/hour.
• B. 18 ml/hour.
• C. 20 ml/hour.
• D. 22 ml/hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.

4. A client is admitted to the medical unit during an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It is most important to report which assessment finding to the healthcare provider?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Muscle atrophy.
• C. Hematuria.
• D. Joint pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematuria is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with SLE during an exacerbation. Hematuria indicates kidney involvement, a serious complication of SLE that requires prompt medical attention. While low-grade fever, muscle atrophy, and joint pain are symptoms that can occur in SLE, hematuria signifies potential renal damage, which is a critical concern in SLE exacerbations.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

Similar Questions