Nursing Elites

1. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.

2. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

3. A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
• B. Request a prescription for pain medication
• C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
• D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.

4. How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?

• A. By placing the infant NPO
• B. By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
• C. By placing the infant to sleep on the side
• D. By switching the infant to cow's milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

5. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

• A. Limited eye movement.
• B. Decreased peripheral vision.
• C. Blurred distance vision.
• D. Photosensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

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