the nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurino
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.

2. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

3. A teenage girl has been placed in a brace for the treatment of scoliosis, the most common skeletal deformity of adolescence. The family asks what they can do to be more supportive. What suggestion from the nurse is the most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate suggestion from the nurse is to recommend purchasing clothes to disguise the brace. Adolescents with scoliosis often have body image concerns and wish to fit in with their peers. By providing clothes that help conceal the brace, the family can support the teenage girl's emotional well-being. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the adolescent's concerns about body image and fitting in, making them less appropriate in this situation.

4. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
A client with fluid volume excess has gained 6.6 pounds. The nurse recognizes that this is equivalent to what volume of fluid?
A client with COPD is receiving home oxygen therapy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?
A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?

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