HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?
- A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
- B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
- C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
- D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid taking folic acid supplements
- B. Report any signs of infection immediately
- C. Limit fluid intake to prevent edema
- D. Increase intake of high-calcium foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections. Reporting signs of infection promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding folic acid supplements is not recommended because methotrexate can lead to folate deficiency, so supplementation may be necessary. There is no direct correlation between fluid intake limitation and methotrexate use. Increasing high-calcium foods is not specifically related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?
- A. Milk
- B. Apples
- C. Carrots
- D. Rice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.
5. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
- A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
- B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
- C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
- D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.
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