HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
- A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
- B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
- C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
- D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
2. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
- A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
- B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
- C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
- D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?
- A. Ensure that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth
- B. Have the mother reposition the infant from the cradle to the football hold
- C. Check for engorgement and assess the nipples for cracks or lesions
- D. Apply a warm compress to the breast for 10 minutes before each feeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.
4. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?
- A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
- B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
- C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
- D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.
5. A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
- A. Encourage the client to get plenty of exercise in addition to the dietary change
- B. Provide written information about the seven warning signs of cancer
- C. Remind the client to ensure that the dairy products are fortified with Vitamin D
- D. Suggest that an increase in fruits and vegetables is more beneficial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
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