HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
- A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
- B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
- C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
- D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
2. A client is recovering from a below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The client reports phantom limb pain. What should the nurse include in the client’s care plan to manage this type of pain?
- A. Apply heat to the residual limb.
- B. Administer prescribed analgesics.
- C. Elevate the residual limb.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phantom limb pain is a type of pain that feels like it's coming from a body part that's no longer there. It is essential to understand that phantom limb pain is real and should be managed appropriately. Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to address this discomfort. Applying heat, elevating the residual limb, and performing range-of-motion exercises are not effective in managing phantom limb pain since the pain originates from the brain expecting sensory input from the missing limb, rather than being related to physical factors that heat, elevation, or exercises can address.
3. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
4. The nurse is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility in planning outdoor activities for the wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?
- A. An open-air concert
- B. A tea party in the courtyard
- C. A team ring-toss competition
- D. A picnic in the park
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A tea party in the courtyard provides a social and physical activity suitable for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. It offers an opportunity for social interaction, enjoyment of the outdoors, and participation in a physical activity without the need for extensive mobility. An open-air concert may not provide the same level of social interaction or physical engagement as a tea party. A team ring-toss competition may be physically challenging for wheelchair-bound residents. A picnic in the park could present challenges related to accessibility and might not foster the same level of social interaction as a tea party in a more contained courtyard setting.
5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
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