Nursing Elites

1. An 8-year-old child is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur. The nurse notices that the weights are touching the foot of the bed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother helps reposition the child
• C. Ensure weights are not touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child wiggles toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the weights in traction are not touching the foot of the bed. This is crucial to maintain proper alignment and effectiveness of the traction. When the weights touch the bed, it can compromise the traction's function and delay healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the issue of ensuring that the weights are not touching the bed, which is essential for the traction to work effectively.

2. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

3. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

4. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.

5. All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:

• A. Kyphosis
• B. Scoliosis
• C. Thrombosis
• D. Lumbar lordosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.

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