Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. .A nurse is performing a physical examination on an infant with Down syndrome. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the child?

• A. Bulging fontanels
• B. Stiff lower extremities
• C. Abnormal heart sounds
• D. Unusual pupillary reactions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abnormal heart sounds could indicate a congenital heart defect, which is common in infants with Down syndrome.

3. A child with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital with a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the most important nursing intervention?

• A. Administering oxygen
• B. Administering pain medication
• C. Monitoring fluid intake
• D. Encouraging physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, the priority nursing intervention is administering pain medication. Pain management is crucial to alleviate the intense pain experienced by the child. While administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation, it is not the most critical intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis. Monitoring fluid intake is important for overall care but is not the immediate priority during a crisis. Encouraging physical activity is contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis as it can worsen the pain and the crisis itself.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Periorbital edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema is often considered the last sign of heart failure in infants and children. It indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) and tachycardia (increased heart rate) are early signs of heart failure due to inadequate cardiac output. Periorbital edema, while a sign of excess fluid, typically occurs earlier in the progression of heart failure compared to peripheral edema.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

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