Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

2. When caring for an alert 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, what should be included?

• A. Back blows, abdominal thrusts, transport
• B. Oxygen, avoiding agitation, transport
• C. Assisting ventilations, back blows, transport
• D. Chest thrusts, finger sweeps, transport

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for a child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, and normal skin color includes providing oxygen to support breathing, avoiding agitation that could worsen the situation, and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Option A is incorrect because abdominal thrusts are not recommended in a mild airway obstruction scenario, and back blows are typically used for choking. Option C is incorrect because assisting ventilations may not be necessary in a child with a strong cough and normal skin color. Option D is incorrect because chest thrusts are not recommended for a mild airway obstruction, and finger sweeps are used for foreign body airway obstructions.

3. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. The woman states that her contractions are occurring every 4 to 5 minutes and lasting approximately 30 seconds each. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask at this point?

• A. Has your bag of waters broken yet?
• B. Have you had regular prenatal care?
• C. At how many weeks gestation are you?
• D. How many other children do you have?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, asking about the gestational age is crucial as it helps determine the stage of labor and potential complications. Knowing the number of weeks of gestation can guide the healthcare provider in assessing the progress of labor and making decisions about the care of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and D are not as relevant in this urgent situation. While knowing if the bag of waters has broken is important for assessing the progress of labor, determining gestational age is more critical at this point. Asking about regular prenatal care or the number of other children does not provide immediate information necessary for managing the current situation.

4. A child with sickle cell anemia develops severe chest pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. The nurse's first action is to

• A. administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia
• B. administer pain medication to relieve symptoms
• C. notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected
• D. notify the practitioner because the child may be having a stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with sickle cell anemia experiencing severe chest pain, fever, cough, and dyspnea, the priority action is to suspect acute chest syndrome, a life-threatening complication. The nurse's first action should be to notify the practitioner for immediate evaluation and intervention. Administering 100% oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the initial priority. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should not precede notifying the practitioner, as addressing the underlying cause is crucial. The symptoms described are more indicative of acute chest syndrome than a stroke, so notifying the practitioner for chest syndrome (Choice C) takes precedence over suspecting a stroke (Choice D).

5. A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?

• A. Measles
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Fifth disease
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect measles based on the symptoms described, including the presence of Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth). Measles typically presents with fever, irritability, runny nose, and a rash that begins on the face and spreads downward. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with vesicular lesions in different stages of healing and usually starts on the trunk. Fifth disease (choice C) presents with a 'slapped cheek' rash on the face and can cause joint pain. Scarlet fever (choice D) is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, fever, and strawberry tongue.

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