HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with tetanus?
- A. Open window shades to provide natural light
- B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
- C. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
- D. Reposition from side to side every hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus can lead to muscle spasms and heightened sensitivity to stimuli, making it essential to reduce environmental triggers for the patient's comfort and safety. Opening window shades for natural light (Choice A) may exacerbate sensitivity to light and worsen symptoms. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (Choice B) is not directly related to managing tetanus symptoms. While repositioning the patient every hour (Choice D) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, it is not the priority when managing tetanus, which requires a quiet, low-stimulus environment to minimize muscle spasms and discomfort.
2. What is the primary focus of postoperative nursing care for the client with colon trauma?
- A. Monitoring for elevated coagulation studies
- B. Observation for and prevention of fistulas
- C. Monitoring for signs of hyponatremia
- D. Observation for and prevention of infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation for and prevention of infection. Postoperative nursing care for a client with colon trauma primarily focuses on preventing infections. Clients with colon trauma are at high risk for infections due to the disruption of the intestinal barrier. Monitoring for signs of infection, maintaining proper wound care, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and implementing strict aseptic techniques are essential in preventing postoperative infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because elevated coagulation studies, fistulas, and hyponatremia are not the primary concerns in the immediate postoperative period for a client with colon trauma.
3. The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Burning pain due to a Morton’s neuroma
- B. Sharp pain related to a crushed femur
- C. Paresthesia of fingers due to carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Stinging pain related to plantar fasciitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton’s neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.
4. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?
- A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
- B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
- D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?
- A. 12.5
- B. 5
- C. 10
- D. 20
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.
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