Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

2. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

3. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4” on a 1 to 10 scale
• B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
• C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
• D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.

4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.

5. While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?

• A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt
• B. The Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts
• C. The Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts
• D. Call 911 immediately then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.

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