a client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse what should the nurse administer to prevent the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

2. After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse’s request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.

3. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

4. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

5. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.

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