Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

2. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
• B. Confusion immediately following the injury
• C. Headache that resolves quickly
• D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.

3. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A. Consult the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management
• B. Schedule the client for physical therapy to manage pain
• C. Recommend the client attend a support group for cancer patients
• D. Suggest alternative therapies like acupuncture or massage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.

5. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in early labor, and the nurse assesses the status of her contractions. The frequency of contractions is most accurately evaluated by counting the minutes and seconds in which manner?

• A. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction
• B. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction
• C. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
• D. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The frequency of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. This timing is crucial in determining the progress of labor. Choice A, measuring from peak to peak, is incorrect as it assesses the duration between the highest points of contractions, which is not how frequency is calculated. Choice B, measuring from the beginning to the end of one contraction, is incorrect as it does not consider the start of the next contraction. Choice D, measuring from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, is incorrect as it misses the initial onset of the following contraction.

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