Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

2. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
• C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
• D. Measure hourly urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

3. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

4. Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.

• A. Fenestra vestibuli
• B. Fenestra cochleae
• C. Tympanic membrane
• D. Round window

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.

5. The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Assess for signs of lymphedema
• B. Encourage the client to perform arm exercises
• C. Provide pain relief through medication
• D. Recommend wearing a compression sleeve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.

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