Nursing Elites

1. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Percussion of abdomen
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

2. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?

• A. Sodium iodide solution
• B. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Propranolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.

3. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
• B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
• C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
• D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.

4. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

5. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Patch one eye.
• B. Reorient often.
• C. Range of motion.
• D. Evaluate swallow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.

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