HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. Which intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?
- A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury
- B. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth
- C. Turn the patient to the side to maintain an open airway
- D. Attempt to stop the seizure by holding the patient’s arms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to ensure patient safety by maintaining an open airway to prevent aspiration. Turning the patient to the side helps achieve this goal by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration. Restraint can lead to injury, placing a tongue depressor can cause harm or obstruct the airway further, and attempting to stop the seizure by holding the patient's arms is ineffective and can also result in injury. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to turn the patient to the side.
2. In which condition is the 'butterfly rash' most commonly seen?
- A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Dermatomyositis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The 'butterfly rash' across the cheeks and nose is a classic sign of SLE, an autoimmune disease. This rash is a key dermatological manifestation of SLE, often triggered or worsened by exposure to sunlight. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the 'butterfly rash' is not commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, or dermatomyositis.
3. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
4. A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?
- A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.
- B. Do not sleep on the side of the hip that was operated on.
- C. Sit in high chairs and keep your knees higher than your hips.
- D. Do not bend forward at the waist to pick up objects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.
5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
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