which is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis
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PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gallstones. Gallstones are the most common cause of acute pancreatitis as they obstruct the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation. While alcohol abuse (Choice B) can also cause pancreatitis, gallstones are more prevalent. Hypertriglyceridemia (Choice C) is a less common cause of acute pancreatitis compared to gallstones. Infection (Choice D) is not a primary cause of acute pancreatitis; gallstones are the leading etiology.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, or the repetition of words, is indicative of disturbed thought processes, a common symptom in clients with schizophrenia. Choice A (Altered thought processes) is a more appropriate term than 'Disturbed thought processes' to describe the issue of echolalia. Choice B (Impaired social interaction) is not the best option in this scenario as echolalia is not primarily a social interaction issue. Choice C (Risk for self-directed violence) is not directly related to the symptom described in the question, which is echolalia, indicating a disturbance in thought processes.

3. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

5. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.

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