which condition is most commonly associated with bulls eye rash
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

2. What is the function of the enzyme lactase in the digestive system?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.' Lactase is an enzyme in the small intestine that specifically breaks down lactose, the sugar found in milk, into glucose and galactose for absorption. Choice B is incorrect because proteins are broken down into amino acids by protease enzymes. Choice C is incorrect because the enzyme amylase converts starch into maltose. Choice D is incorrect as lipase enzymes break down fats into fatty acids.

3. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

5. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

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