HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client on bedrest refuses to wear the prescribed pneumatic compression devices after surgery. Which action should the PN implement in response to the client's refusal?
- A. Emphasize the importance of active foot flexion
- B. Check the surgical dressing
- C. Complete an incident report
- D. Explain the use of an incentive spirometer every 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement when a client refuses pneumatic compression devices is to emphasize the importance of active foot flexion. Active foot flexion exercises can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients who are not using the compression devices. Encouraging some form of circulation-promoting activity is crucial to reduce the risks associated with immobility. Checking the surgical dressing (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action to address the refusal of compression devices. Completing an incident report (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the client's refusal is not an incident. Explaining the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the refusal of compression devices for DVT prevention.
2. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Contact precautions
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Standard precautions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.
3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
- A. Amikacin
- B. Moxifloxacin
- C. Rifabutin
- D. Cycloserine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
4. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
- A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
- B. Aids in food propulsion
- C. Enhances taste sensation
- D. Lubricates the esophagus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
5. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?
- A. Loosen the fistula dressing
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.
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