HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
- B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
- C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
- D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
2. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry
- B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
- C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
- D. Turn the infant onto the right side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.
3. A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?
- A. Wear compression garments on the affected arm.
- B. Avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm.
- C. Perform vigorous exercises to strengthen the affected arm.
- D. Keep the affected arm elevated at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.
4. The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Remain in the room to supervise the UAP
- B. Determine if the UAP would like assistance
- C. Assume care of the client immediately
- D. Instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.
5. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?
- A. Parathyroid hormone
- B. Insulin
- C. Cortisol
- D. Thyroxine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access