HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
2. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?
- A. Auscultating the client's heart sounds
- B. Provide the client with a diversionary activity
- C. Encourage deep breathing
- D. Maintain a patent intravenous access
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing a diversionary activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote comfort for a client with pericarditis. This intervention helps to distract the patient and reduce discomfort by focusing their attention elsewhere. Auscultating heart sounds, while important for monitoring the condition, does not directly address the client's comfort. Encouraging deep breathing can be beneficial for some conditions but may not be specifically aimed at promoting comfort in pericarditis. Maintaining a patent intravenous access is essential for treatment access and management of the condition, but it does not directly promote comfort for the client.
4. When teaching a patient with diabetes about foot care, which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Avoid soaking feet daily to prevent dryness and skin breakdown
- B. Select well-fitting shoes to prevent injury
- C. Trim toenails straight across and file the edges
- D. Avoid using heating pads to prevent burns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trimming toenails straight across and filing the edges is crucial in diabetic foot care to prevent ingrown toenails and foot injuries. Soaking feet daily can lead to dryness and skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection. Selecting well-fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and skin damage, not tight-fitting shoes. Using heating pads can result in burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet, so it's essential to avoid them.
5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
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